The original thread premise claimed that NYC, SF, Chicago, Boston, Philly, and DC, a list of
very different cities in terms of size, population, and built form belong to a single group that can be called "big urban cities". I personally can't see any plausible argument why these all can be included in a single group while LA can't. Boston and DC are not Philly with its huge expanse of rowhouses, and none of them are anywhere near NY with its huge quantity of... basically everything. A good half or more of these metro areas are suburban in nature other than maybe NYC. But even it has more people in suburban areas than most of the other listed cities have in their entire metros.
The "proportion" of urban vs suburban would be relevant if just measuring and comparing overall "urban-ness." But for inclusion in a list of "big urban cities" this seems to be a pass/fail in terms of the sheer quantity of urban development. After all, the "big" takes precedence over the "urban". If you added another say, 10 million people in the form of suburban sprawl to the NYC metro area while keeping the urban part as is, the urban part would still be big and urban. And if you trimmed away say, 7 million people's worth of metro LA's most suburban development while keeping the 7ish million of the most urban areas, wouldn't the part that remained be similarly urban as metro DC or Boston? Pretty sure it would given both of the latter metro areas have huge volumes of suburbs. So while population density is far from the only criterion for what counts as urban, that's not really the most relevant aspect here.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Steely Dan
As has been reiterated many, many times now in this thread, LA brings the population density to hang with the "big 6"; many traditional urbanists just don't care for the form it has largely taken. which is fine, but that's a different discussion than straight population density.
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After following the thread without having a particularly strong opinion one way or the other, I think this raises some important questions including:
- Is population density on its own enough to qualify a place as being similarly or equally "urban" as places with comparable population density but with additional urban features?
- Is urban vs not urban a simple pass/fail concept where if a place meets a minimum set of criteria it's urban and if it doesn't it's not? Or is it more of a gradient?
- And if it's a gradient, how close do places need to be on the spectrum to be considered part of the same subgroup?
For the first question I'd answer no. Population density is just part of what makes a place urban. A place with additional urban features like greater walkability/less car usage, more buildings built to street with fewer lawns and setbacks, more transit usage, etc. is more urban than a place with fewer of these things even if it has equal population density. So for the second question, yes urban-ness is very much a gradient. But for the 3rd question, that would be answered by the response up top. If places as different as the listed "big urban 6" can be grouped, then whatever the criteria are they're loose enough to also include others.