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Old Posted May 23, 2023, 6:37 PM
Docere Docere is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Crawford View Post
Because Toronto has a giant zone of core affluence, and Detroit/Cleveland don't. In North America, Toronto probably has one of the highest shares of wealth proximate to the core.

Though it's true that Toronto doesn't just have Jews in/near the core, it has Jewish districts in/near the core. This is arguably distinct from places like SF and DC, and perhaps even Chicago (though Chicago was historically so much bigger it could be argued its "Forest Hill" is on the North Shore - Orthodox Chicago is an older neighborhood than Cosmopolitan Jewish Toronto. Forest Hill is more like inner North Shore).
Chicago's Jewish community in 1945 was concentrated on the West Side in Lawndale, with a secondary concentration in Albany Park.

Albany Park seems to represent the transition from west to north.

The movement out of the old Jewish neighborhoods after 1945 (Lawndale abruptly, Albany Park more gradually) was mainly to West Rogers Park (which went from less than 2,000 Jews in 1930 to 11,000 Jews in 1950 to 48,000 Jews in 1963), to Skokie (a postwar suburb that was majority-Jewish in the postwar era), and to certain North Shore suburbs such as Glencoe and Highland Park (which both had a handful of wealthy Jews in the interwar years while other North Shore suburbs such as Winnetka, Kenilworth and Lake Forest were restricted).

This established a pattern of Orthodox and Traditional-Conservative closer in, Reform further out. West Rogers Park became Orthodox dominated, Skokie less so but still more traditional, while the establishmentarian Reform demographic dominated on the North Shore. Though the north side lakefront neighborhoods have a lot of Reform and secular Jews as well.

So I don't think there really is a "Forest Hill" in Chicago or a "Glencoe" in Toronto. The cities just developed differently.
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