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Originally Posted by Caliplanner1
Didn't liberalization/limited government/a lack of government regulation etc. help cause the Wall Street Crash of 1929
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No. It was caused by direct government action through the Federal Reserve's inflationary policies under the leadership of Benjamin Strong.
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Originally Posted by Caliplanner1
and the near collapse of the American banking system in 08?
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Again, completely caused by government action, from the Fed's artificially low interest rates, Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac guaranteeing mortgages, the Community Reinvestment Act and affirmative action in lending, the "pro-ownership" tax code, etc.
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Originally Posted by Caliplanner1
Further isn't the U.S. relatively decentralized in government although we continue to see the private sector rationalize business operations via increasing levels of monopoly acquisitions and mergers to boost market control and attendant profits (further fueling growing income inequality/system debt)?
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The US is not decentralized when it comes to regulation of the banking industry, for example.
And monopolies do not exist in a free market. They are an artificial creation by the state, either through monopoly charters or through the imposition of barriers to new entrants into an economic sector.
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Originally Posted by Caliplanner1
Do you think that deregulation in business will necessarily/automatically engender greater prosperity for the average working Mexican (without some government legal oversight to ensure such)?
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Absolutely. Properity comes from the private sector, not from the state. Everything the state has it must take from those who produce.