Quote:
Originally Posted by Nouvellecosse
You mention four different demographic groups explaining that US cities have three of them and lack one. Yet you imply that only one of the three is "normal". Why is only one group "normal" and what defines normality in terms of your usage? Is it that a group has to account for a certain percentage of the total national or regional population? And if so what percentage is the cut off?
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That one group represents a massive chunk of America, that's an important point to make. Yep, normal to me would be a huge portion of the American population that cities do not have in any meaningful portions.
I don't know what the percentages are. I do know cities like Chicago(soley based on looking at income maps from like the 1970s-2010s) used to have massives sections of their cities where middle-class families thrived. Today Chicago, along with most large sought after cities, are comprised the wealthy, the poor, and young people who are either in college or just got their first job etc.. So basically you have the extremes of those who are "haves" and those that are "havenots." I don't like that. I want families who make 50-70k a year to not only be able to afford a house in a good city neighborhood, but also feel comfortable sending their kids to local schools.
Our cities would change radically if just 10% of families who end up in the burbs go or stay in the city.